Matthew 1: 6 King James Version
"...and David the king begat Solomon of her that had been the wife of Urias..."
"...and David the king begat Solomon of her that had been the wife of Urias..."
Joseph changed this to the more emphatic and doctrinally correct:
"David the king begat Solomon of her whom David had taken of Urias..."
Can any self-proclaimed Christian deny this is what happened? For whatever reason the KJV speaks euphemistically about David's horrific crimes (adultery and murder), but the verse is not how the LORD wanted it. Joseph strengthens it to remind everyone that those 2 sins are part of the Ten Commandments, and violation of either (in this author's opinion) forfeits any chance for the perpetrator to live with God and Christ after this life.